Which condition may be suspected in a patient with end-stage renal disease Quizlet

B, C, E

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    ​Rationale: Animal sources of protein​ are meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk,​ cheese, and yogurt which are proteins of high biologic value.​ Plants, legumes, grains,​ nuts, seeds, and vegetables provide proteins of low biologic value.

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    Terms in this set (50)

    Which condition is a result of severe metabolic acidosis in patients with acute kidney injury?

    A. Asterixis
    B. Proteinuria
    C. Hydronephrosis
    D. Kussmaul respirations

    D. Kussmaul respirations

    Rationale
    Severe acidosis causes a patient to take deep and rapid breaths—called Kussmaul respirations—in an effort to increase the exhalation of carbon dioxide. Asterixis is a neurologic change associated with acute kidney injury due to the accumulation of metabolic waste in the brain and nervous system. Dysfunction of the glomerular membrane due to acute kidney injury leads to proteinuria. Hydronephrosis refers to dilation of the kidneys and is a postrenal cause of acute kidney injury.

    p. 1072

    A nurse is giving dietary advice to a patient who is on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis for chronic renal failure. Which dietary instructions are appropriate for this patient? Select all that apply.

    High-fluid intake
    High-calorie foods
    High-protein foods
    High-potassium content
    High-phosphorus content

    High-calorie foods
    High-protein foods

    Rationale
    A chronic renal failure patient on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis is encouraged to have a high-calorie diet to meet the increased demands of the body. A good amount of protein should be consumed to replace that lost during dialysis. Foods containing high amounts of potassium and phosphorus should be avoided in patients with chronic renal failure. High potassium can cause hyperkalemia and related complications, especially cardiac complications. High phosphorus may deteriorate bone health. Usually there is a modest restriction of fluids when the patient is on dialysis.

    p. 1082

    The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease. The patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 15 mL/min. What are the treatment options the nurse would expect the health care provider to discuss with the patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Nephrectomy

    B. Hemodialysis

    C. Peritoneal dialysis

    D. Kidney transplant in place of dialysis

    E. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

    B. Hemodialysis
    C. Peritoneal dialysis
    E. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

    Rationale
    Any dialysis option would be appropriate for the patient. A nephrectomy is not going to cure the chronic kidney disease, and it is unknown whether the kidney has a tumor or cancer with this question. Kidney placement in place of dialysis at this point is too late. Dialysis needs to begin while awaiting a kidney transplant.

    p. 1076

    A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed regular peritoneal dialysis (PD). What should the nurse inform the patient while teaching about PD?

    A. Avoid high-protein diets.
    B. Take potassium supplements.
    C. Avoid powdered breakfast drinks.
    D. Restrict fluid intake, as in hemodialysis.

    B. Take potassium supplements.

    Rationale
    The patient undergoing regular peritoneal dialysis (PD) does not need to restrict potassium intake; instead, this patient may be prescribed oral potassium supplementation because of hypokalemia caused by dialysis. The patient need not restrict protein or fluid intake. The patient should include enough protein in the diet to compensate for loss of protein in dialysate. The patient may even take liquid or powdered breakfast drinks in case of inadequate protein intake. Patients on hemodialysis have a more restricted fluid intake than patients receiving peritoneal dialysis (PD).

    The nurse is attending to a patient who is receiving hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease. For which complications should the nurse be observant in the patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Hypotension
    B. Renal calculi
    C. Muscle cramps
    D. Hepatitis type B
    E. Bladder infection

    A. Hypotension
    C. Muscle cramps
    D. Hepatitis type B

    Rationale
    The patient on hemodialysis may have decreased blood pressure due to rapid removal of blood. Hepatitis type B is a blood-borne infection, and hemodialysis poses a high risk for transmission of hepatitis B. Muscle cramps are a common complication of hemodialysis. Factors associated with the development of muscle cramps in hemodialysis include hypotension, hypovolemia, a high ultrafiltration rate (large interdialytic weight gain), and low-sodium dialysis solution. Hemodialysis does not increase the risk of development of renal calculi; people who are on bed rest or have low urine output may be at risk. Bladder infection is not related to dialysis.

    pp. 1090-1091

    A patient is scheduled to undergo peritoneal dialysis. What is the highest-priority action that the nurse should perform before starting dialysis?

    A. Obtain the patient's weight
    B. Administer pain medication to the patient
    C. Place the patient in a high Fowler's position
    D. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

    A. Obtain the patient's weight

    Rationale
    The nurse must check the patient's weight before and after peritoneal dialysis (PD) to determine how much fluid has been removed. The patient should assume a position of comfort, such as a low Fowler's, unless there is difficulty with removing the effluent, in which case the nurse will position the patient to facilitate drainage. Administering pain medication is not a priority in regard to PD. There is no indication that the patient is experiencing pain. Placing the patient in a high Fowler's or Trendelenburg position is not recommended for patients during PD.

    p. 1089

    While caring for a patient with kidney failure, the patient has three episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. Which action should the nurse perform as a priority?

    A. Administer antiemetic.
    B. Record the blood pressure.
    C. Record the volume of fluid lost.
    D. Administer water with a high salt content.

    C. Record the volume of fluid lost

    Rationale
    The nurse should record the volume of fluid lost as a priority because replacement must be done to prevent tubular damage. The nurse should not administer drugs without consulting the primary health care provider. The blood pressure should be recorded to check for hypovolemia, but this action can also be performed later. The nurse should not administer salty water because it can induce vomiting.

    p. 1074

    The patient with an acute kidney injury is being admitted. Which prescriptions by the primary health care provider should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

    A. Sodium restriction
    B. Potassium restriction
    C. Phosphate binding agents
    D. Encourage fluid replacement
    E. Intermittent straight catheterization

    A. Sodium restriction
    B. Potassium restriction
    C. Phosphate binding agents
    D. Encourage fluid replacement

    Rationale
    The patient with acute kidney injury is at risk for kidney failure. Close monitoring of fluid and electrolyte balance is a key nursing assessment, so the nurse will anticipate fluid replacement, potassium restriction, sodium restriction, and phosphate binding agents to be prescribed. There will be no prescription for intermittent straight catheterizations, because this places the patient at risk for a urinary tract infection (UTI).

    pp. 1073-1074

    A patient has renal failure. The nurse, reviewing the lab results, recognizes which finding as indicative of the diminished renal function associated with the diagnosis?

    A. Hypokalemia
    B. Increased serum urea and serum creatinine
    C. Anemia and decreased blood urea nitrogen
    D. Increased serum albumin and hyperkalemia

    B. Increased serum urea and serum creatinine

    Rationale
    Renal failure, whether acute or chronic, causes an increase in serum urea, creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen. Renal failure may also cause hyperkalemia and anemia and decrease serum albumin. However, it does not cause decreased blood urea nitrogen or increased serum albumin.

    p. 1072

    The patient has a form of glomerular inflammation that is progressing rapidly. The patient is gaining weight, and the urine output is declining steadily. What is the priority nursing intervention?

    A. Monitor the patient's cardiac status.
    B. Teach the patient about hand washing.
    C. Increase direct observation of the patient.
    D. Obtain a serum specimen for electrolytes.

    A. Monitor the patient's cardiac status.

    Rationale
    The nurse's priority is to monitor the patient's cardiac status. With the rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis, renal function begins to fail and fluid, potassium, and hydrogen retention lead to hypervolemia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. Excess fluid increases the workload of the heart, and hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Teaching about hand washing and observation of the patient are important nursing interventions but are not the priority. Electrolyte measurement is a collaborative intervention that will be done as prescribed by the health care provider.

    p. 1076

    A diabetic patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of facial puffiness for the past three days, swelling in the legs, and difficulty breathing. The laboratory report states the blood glucose level as 260 mg/dL and the serum creatinine level as 3.9 mg/dL. What does the nurse suspect from these findings?

    A. Kidney failure
    B. Injury to the kidneys
    C. Loss of kidney function
    D. End-stage kidney disease

    A. Kidney failure

    Rationale
    Facial puffiness for three days, swelling in the legs, and difficulty breathing indicate fluid overload and edema. The normal range of serum creatinine is 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL. Serum creatine levels increase threefold in patients with kidney failure. Because the patient has a serum creatinine level of 3.9 mg/dL, the nurse suspects kidney failure. In kidney injury, the serum creatinine level increases twofold. A complete loss of kidney function for more than four weeks indicates a loss of kidney function. Complete loss of kidney function for more than three months is a characteristic of end-stage kidney disease.

    pp. 1071-1072

    A patient with acute kidney injury has rapid and deep respirations. The laboratory reports reveal a serum bicarbonate level of 12 mEq/L. Which treatment strategy does the nurse expect to be beneficial?

    A. Regular insulin
    B. Sodium bicarbonate
    C. Phosphate-binding agents
    D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

    B. Sodium bicarbonate

    Rationale
    A normal serum bicarbonate level is 15 mEq/L. Decreased levels of serum bicarbonate are observed in patients with kidney failure, which results in metabolic acidosis. Rapid and deep respirations are the characteristics features of Kussmaul respirations, which are a manifestation of metabolic acidosis. Sodium bicarbonate is a base that counteracts metabolic acidosis; thus, sodium bicarbonate will help to treat the patient. Regular insulin and sodium polystyrene sulfonate are used to treat hyperkalemia. Hyperphosphatemia is managed with phosphate-binding agents.

    p. 1072

    A patient with acute kidney injury has been admitted to the hospital, and the nurse observes the electrocardiogram (ECG) reading shows tall peaked T waves, ST depression, and QRS widening. What nursing interventions should the nurse perform for this patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
    B. Administer diuretics as ordered.
    C. Ensure potassium intake of 50 mEq/day.
    D. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
    E. Administer calcium gluconate intravenously.

    A. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
    D. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
    E. Administer calcium gluconate intravenously.

    Rationale
    ECG readings for this patient are indicative of cardiac changes due to hyperkalemia induced by acute kidney injury. Regular insulin, administered intravenously, helps the potassium to move into the cells. Sodium bicarbonate corrects the acidosis and causes the potassium to shift into the cells. Calcium gluconate raises the threshold for excitation, protecting the heart. The potassium intake should be limited to 40 mEq/day. Diuretics are not effective in hyperkalemia.

    p. 1073

    A patient complains of reduced urine output and abdominal pain. The primary health care provider suspects acute kidney injury. Which diagnostic test will the health care provider suggest as an initial test to confirm the diagnosis?

    A. Renal biopsy
    B. Kidney ultrasound
    C. Computed topographic scan
    D. Magnetic resonance imaging

    B. Kidney ultrasound

    Rationale
    Aside from blood tests, the health care provider will first order a kidney ultrasound because it does not involve exposure to contrast agents. A renal biopsy is the best method for confirmation of intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury; however, it is not the preliminary test used to diagnose acute kidney injury. A computed tomographic scan can identify lesions, masses, obstructions, and vascular anomalies, but it is not primarily used to establish a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. Magnetic resonance imaging will be suggested later to examine the abnormalities in detail.

    p. 1105

    Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement while preparing a high-risk patient with contrast-induced nephropathy for magnetic resonance imaging?

    A. Give low-fat foods
    B. Give low-calorie foods
    C. Provide plenty of fluids
    D. Provide a high-protein diet

    C. Provide plenty of fluids

    Rationale
    Contrast agents accumulate in the nephrons, causing their death and resulting in renal failure. Therefore patients who have a high risk of contrast-induced nephropathy should be well hydrated. Fatty foods are rich in calories and should be given to provide energy. High-calorie foods should be included in a patient's diet. A high-protein diet causes increased levels of nitrogenous waste in the blood. Therefore a low-protein diet should be given to this patient.

    p. 1073

    The nursing instructor is teaching a student nurse about sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Which statement by the student nurse indicates the need for further teaching?

    A. "It can be administered as an enema."
    B. "The drug is effective in treating a paralytic ileus."
    C. "The drug helps exchange potassium for sodium."
    D. "It is mixed in water with sorbitol and then administered."

    B. "The drug is effective in treating a paralytic ileus."

    Rationale
    Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to correct hyperkalemia and is contraindicated in patients with a paralytic ileus because it causes bowel necrosis. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate can be administered in the form of an enema, which acts by exchanging potassium for sodium ions. It can also be administered after mixing it in water with sorbitol to facilitate the removal of potassium from the body.

    p. 1074

    The nursing instructor is teaching a student nurse about continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). Which statement by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

    A. "CRRT is provided over approximately 24 hours."
    B. "CRRT has a faster blood flow rate than hemodialysis."
    C. "CRRT does not require the addition of an anticoagulant."
    D. "CRRT cannot be used in conjunction with hemodialysis."

    A. "CRRT is provided over approximately 24 hours."

    Rationale
    Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is a physiologic therapy that simulates kidney function day and night. CRRT is done either by cannulating an artery and a vein or by cannulating two veins. CRRT is provided continuously for approximately 24 hours. CRRT involves the flow of blood from the body through a filter and carries an increased risk of clotting; thus an anticoagulant must be added. CRRT can be performed along with hemodialysis. CRRT has a slower blood flow rate than intermittent hemodialysis.

    While caring for a patient with acute kidney injury, the nurse observes that the patient has hand tremors while extending the wrist. The patient's laboratory report shows a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 123 mg/dL. Which action by the patient does the nurse suspect as the cause of this symptom?

    A. Eating protein-rich food
    B. Eating sodium-rich food
    C. Eating potassium-rich food
    D. Eating carbohydrate-rich food

    A. Eating protein-rich food

    Rationale
    Patients with acute kidney injury have impaired renal excretion cannot eliminate nitrogenous wastes; this will result in increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. Eating protein-rich food will increase the level of BUN and cause neurologic changes such as asterixis, which is characterized by flapping tremor upon extension of the wrist. A normal level of BUN is 120 mg/dL. Because the patient has asterixis and a BUN level of 125 mg/dL, the nurse suspects the consumption of protein-rich food to be the cause of this symptom, not the consumption of sodium-rich, potassium-rich, or carbohydrate-rich food.

    p. 1074

    A patient complains of pedal edema. The laboratory reports show 0.4 mL/kg/hr of urine output for the past 12 hours. The patient has a history of acute glomerulonephritis. Which method is the best to confirm acute glomerulonephritis as a cause of acute kidney injury in this patient?

    A. Kidney biopsy
    B Kidney ultrasound
    C. Computed tomographic scan
    D. Magnetic resonance imaging

    A. Kidney biopsy

    Rationale
    Pedal edema and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 12 hours indicate acute kidney injury. Glomerulonephritis is one of the intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury. A kidney biopsy is the best method to confirm intrarenal causes of kidney injury. A kidney ultrasound is the first diagnostic test used to establish acute kidney injury. A computed tomography scan is used to identify lesions, masses, lesions, and vascular anomalies. Magnetic resonance imaging is not advised in patients with renal failure unless necessary due to the development of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis.

    p. 1073

    The nurse preparing to administer a dose of calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) should know that this medication should have a beneficial effect on which laboratory value?

    A. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    C. Magnesium
    D. Phosphorus

    D. Phosphorus

    Rationale
    Phosphorus and calcium have inverse or reciprocal relationships, meaning that when phosphorus levels are high, calcium levels tend to be low. Therefore administration of calcium should help to reduce a patient's abnormally high phosphorus level, as seen with CKD. Calcium acetate will not have an effect on sodium, potassium, or magnesium levels.

    A patient with chronic kidney failure (CKD) has a paralytic ileus and laboratory findings of a serum potassium level of 7 mEq/L and a phosphate level of 3.5 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates that what medication will be prescribed?

    A. Calcium carbonate
    B. Lanthanum carbonate
    C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
    D. Intravenous 10% calcium gluconate

    D. Intravenous 10% calcium gluconate

    Rationale
    Serum potassium levels of 7 mEq/L indicate hyperkalemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease. The patient should be given 10% calcium gluconate intravenously to control the elevated levels of serum potassium. A serum phosphate level of 3.5 mg/dL is a normal finding. Administration of calcium-based phosphate binders, such as calcium carbonate, and non-calcium-based phosphate binders, such as lanthanum carbonate, are only beneficial for chronic kidney failure patients with elevated serum phosphate levels. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate should not be given to patients with paralytic ileus because it can cause bowel necrosis in a hypoactive bowel.

    p. 1080

    Which condition should the nurse suspect in a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who develops osteomalacia?

    A. Asterixis
    B. Uremic frost
    C. Gastroparesis
    D. Uremic red eye

    D. Uremic red eye

    Rationale
    Chronic kidney disease mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD) is a common complication of CKD and results in both skeletal and extraskeletal complications. Osteomalacia is a skeletal complication. Calcium deposition in the eye may create irritation leading to uremic red eye, an extraskeletal complication. Asterixis (hand-flapping tremor) occurs due to motor neuropathy. Uremic frost is the crystallization of urea on the skin when blood urea nitrogen levels are elevated to 200 mg/dL. Gastroparesis (delayed gastric emptying) compounds the effect of malnutrition for patients with diabetes.

    p. 1079

    The nurse recognizes that which intervention would help a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who experiences restless leg syndrome, altered mental ability, seizures, coma, and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 35 mg/dL?

    A. Refer the patient for dialysis.
    B. Administer calcium phosphate binders.
    C. Administer 10% calcium gluconate intravenously.
    D. Recommend that the patient receive a blood transfusion.

    A. Refer the patient for dialysis.

    Rationale
    The patient's symptoms of restless leg syndrome, altered mental ability, and irritability are manifestations of neurologic complications due to accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the brain and nervous system. The patient has seizures and coma due to the high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 35 mg/dL. Therefore dialysis would improve central nervous system functions and slow the neuropathies. Calcium phosphate binders are administered in a patient with hyperphosphatemia. A blood transfusion is not preferred to treat anemia unless the patient experiences an acute blood loss or symptomatic anemia. Intravenous administration of 10% calcium gluconate helps to reduce hyperkalemia in a patient.

    p. 1078

    A patient has been catheterized with an indwelling urinary catheter. What nursing action should the nurse perform for catheter care?

    A. Change the catheter routinely.
    B. Anchor the catheter using a securement device.
    C. Remove the catheter to obtain a urine sample.
    D. Apply powder around the perineal area to keep the area dry.

    B. Anchor the catheter using a securement device.

    Rationale
    Catheters should be anchored to the upper thigh in women and to the lower abdomen in men to prevent catheter movement and urethral tension. Catheters should not be changed routinely. The patient should be monitored for indications of obstruction or complications before changing the catheter. The catheter should not be removed to collect a urine sample. Instead, small volumes of urine should be aspirated from the urinary port by means of a sterile syringe and a needle when needed. Perineal care should be provided by cleaning the meatus-catheter junction with soap and water. Use of lotions or powder near the catheter may lead to infection.

    p. 1062

    The primary health care provider performs a surgical technique in a patient with incontinence to increase the urethral closure pressure and periurethral electromyography activity. Which type of incontinence would the nurse suspect in the patient?

    A. Stress incontinence
    B. Reflex incontinence
    C. Overflow incontinence
    D. Incontinence after trauma or surgery

    A. Stress incontinence

    Rationale
    Injecting autologous stem cells into the rhabdosphincter and urethral submucosa is a recent surgical technique done for stress urinary incontinence (UI) to increase the closure pressure and periurethral electromyography activity. Reflex incontinence is cured by surgical sphincterotomy. Overflow incontinence can be cured by urinary or intermittent catheterization. Incontinence after trauma or surgery is treated by placing an artificial implantable sphincter.

    pp. 1057-1058

    While caring for a patient with suprapubic catheterization, the nurse administers an opium suppository. Which outcome in the patient indicates effective treatment?

    A. The patient will not experience flank pain.
    B. The patient will not experience bladder spasms.
    C. The patient will not experience urine loss after voiding.
    D. The patient will not experience overdistention of the kidney pelvis.

    B. The patient will not experience bladder spasms.

    Rationale
    The patient with suprapubic catheterization may have urine leakage due to bladder spasms. An opium suppository is administered to decrease the bladder spasms. Acute pyelonephritis involves flank pain and administration of ciprofloxacin reduces the flank pain. Administration of trimethoprim will help to reduce urine loss after voiding in a urinary tract infection. Overdistention of the kidney pelvis is a complication associated with nephrostomy tubes. Instilling 5 mL of sterile saline solution will help to prevent overdistention of the kidney pelvis.

    A patient who is unable to urinate reports pain in the lower abdomen. The postvoid residual (PVR) volume of the patient is 150 mL. What reason does the nurse suspect to be the cause of this finding in the patient?

    A. Obstruction with urinary stasis
    B. Deficient detrusor contraction strength
    C. Interference of urethral sphincter control
    D. Colonization and infection of the lower urinary tract

    B. Deficient detrusor contraction strength

    Rationale
    Inability to urinate with pain in the lower abdomen indicates urinary retention. If the postvoid residual (PVR) volume is above 100 mL, it indicates urinary retention. The cause of urinary retention is deficient detrusor contraction strength, in which the muscle no longer contracts with enough force to void the bladder. Obstruction with urinary stasis can be seen in patients with stress incontinence due to prostate cancer. Interference of urethral sphincter control causes urinary incontinence (UI). Colonization and infection of the upper urinary tract cause acute pyelonephritis.

    p. 1060

    Which type of incontinence might occur in a patient after receiving anesthesia?

    A. Urge incontinence
    B. Stress incontinence
    C. Reflex incontinence
    D. Overflow incontinence

    D. Overflow incontinence

    Rationale
    Overflow incontinence occurs after a patient receives anesthesia. Urge incontinence occurs due to bladder obstruction, central nervous system disorders, or bladder disorders. Prostate surgery causes stress incontinence. Reflex incontinence results when spinal cord lesions above S2 interfere with central nervous system inhibition.

    p. 1056

    A patient with interstitial cystitis complains of burning pain in the bladder. Which medications does the nurse expect to be beneficial to the patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Alfuzosin
    B. Diltiazem
    C. Verapamil
    D. Imipramine
    E. Phenylpropanolamine

    B. Diltiazem
    C. Verapamil
    D. Imipramine

    Rationale
    Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil reduce smooth muscle contraction and help reduce burning pain. Tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine reduce burning pain in the bladder. Alfuzosin reduces urethral sphincter resistance to urinary outflow. Phenylpropanolamine is an α-adrenergic agonist that increases urethral resistance.

    p. 1059

    A patient has undergone a nephrectomy due to a renal tumor. What nursing interventions are appropriate for the postoperative care of this patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Record urine output.
    B. Weigh the patient daily.
    C. Monitor abdominal distention.
    D. Instruct the patient to minimize coughing.
    E. Allow oral intake immediately after operation.
    F. Provide adequate pain relief through analgesics.

    A. Record urine output.
    B. Weigh the patient daily.
    C. Monitor abdominal distention.
    F. Provide adequate pain relief through analgesics.

    Rationale
    It is important to record hourly fluid intake and output to assess kidney function in the patient. Abdominal distension is commonly present in patients who have had abdominal surgery due to paralytic ileus caused by manipulation and compression of bowel during surgery. The patient may be reluctant to turn, cough, and deep breathe because of the incisional pain. Adequate pain medication should be given to ensure patient's comfort and ability to perform coughing and deep breathing exercises. It is important to weigh the patient daily, because a significant change in daily weight can indicate a retention of fluids. Oral intake is restricted until bowel sounds are present (usually 24 to 48 hours after surgery).

    Test-Taking Tip: Make educated guesses when necessary.

    p. 1063

    A nurse should instruct a patient with nephrotic syndrome in which type of diet?

    A. Low in fat
    B. Low in protein
    C. High in protein
    D. High in carbohydrates

    C. High in protein

    Rationale
    Most patients with nephrotic syndrome are advised to consume a high-protein diet to replace protein lost through the kidneys and to correct hypoalbuminemia. The dietary instructions in the other answer options are not specific recommendations related to nephrotic syndrome.

    p. 1044

    A patient is diagnosed with calcium oxalate urinary tract calculi. What actions should the nurse perform to manage this patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Give calcium lactate.
    B. Reduce sodium intake.
    C. Reduce dietary oxalate.
    D. Reduce dietary purines.
    E. Give α-penicillamine and tiopronin.

    A. Give calcium lactate.
    B. Reduce sodium intake.
    C. Reduce dietary oxalate.

    Rationale
    Give calcium lactate, because it helps to precipitate oxalate in the gastrointestinal tract. Reduce daily sodium intake, because sodium can cause fluid retention and reduce the outflow of urine. Reduce dietary oxalate, because the urinary calculi diagnosed are calcium oxalate. A reduction in dietary purines is advised in cases of uric acid calculi. Give α-penicillamine and tiopronin in the case of cystine stones, which are caused by a rare hereditary defect resulting in an inborn error of cystine metabolism.

    p. 1046

    A 22-year-old female patient had a physical for a new job. Her blood pressure was 110/68. At the health fair two months later, her blood pressure is 154/96. What renal problem should the nurse be aware of that could contribute to this abrupt rise in blood pressure?

    A. Renal trauma
    B. Renal artery stenosis
    C. Renal vein thrombosis
    D. Benign nephrosclerosis

    B. Renal artery stenosis

    Rationale
    Renal artery stenosis contributes to an abrupt rise in blood pressure, especially in people under 30 or over 50 years of age. Renal trauma usually causes hematuria. Renal vein thrombosis causes flank pain, hematuria, fever, or nephrotic syndrome. Benign nephrosclerosis usually occurs in adults 30 to 50 years of age and is a result of vascular changes resulting from hypertension.

    p. 1051

    Which nursing intervention is most appropriate in providing care for an adult patient with newly diagnosed adult onset polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

    A. Help the patient cope with the rapid progression of the disease.
    B. Suggest genetic counseling resources for the children of the patient.
    C. Expect the patient to have polyuria and poor concentration ability of the kidneys.
    D. Implement appropriate measures for the patient's deafness and blindness in addition to the renal problems.

    B. Suggest genetic counseling resources for the children of the patient.

    Rationale
    PKD is one of the most common genetic diseases and genetic counseling should be suggested. The adult form of PKD may range from a relatively mild disease to one that progresses to chronic kidney disease. Polyuria, deafness, and blindness are not associated with PKD.

    p. 1051

    When teaching a patient about the ways to manage nephrotic syndrome, which instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

    A. Restrict dietary salt intake.
    B. Increase daily water intake.
    C. Clean edematous skin carefully.
    D. Avoid exposure to infected persons.
    E. Consume calorie-rich and heavy meals.

    A. Restrict dietary salt intake.
    C. Clean edematous skin carefully.
    D. Avoid exposure to infected persons.

    Rationale
    Restriction of dietary salt intake is necessary to control edema caused by fluid retention. Clean edematous skin carefully, because the fluid retention means that any trauma to the skin should be avoided. Because the patient with nephrotic syndrome is susceptible to infections, the patient should avoid exposure to persons with known infections. Increased daily water intake is not recommended due to fluid retention; a fluid-restricted diet is advised. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are usually anorexic and can become malnourished from the excessive loss of protein in the urine. Small, frequent meals in a pleasant setting should be encouraged for better dietary intake.

    p. 1044

    A patient is suspected to have acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse is evaluating the causes and risk factors for glomerulonephritis in this patient. Which patient factors would the nurse anticipate contributed to acute glomerulonephritis? Select all that apply.

    A. Hypertension
    B. Chlamydial infection
    C. Streptococcal throat infection
    D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    E. Neurogenic hypersensitivity of the lower urinary tract

    A. Hypertension
    C. Streptococcal throat infection
    D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

    Rationale
    Hypertension can cause scarring and nephrosclerosis, which can lead to glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal throat infection can lead to acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), which is a common type and develops 5 to 21 days after an infection of the tonsils or pharynx by nephrotoxic strains of group A β-hemolytic streptococci. Viruses, such as HIV, can trigger glomerulonephritis. Chlamydial infection causes urethritis, which is an inflammation of the urethra. Neurogenic hypersensitivity of the lower urinary tract is the cause of interstitial cystitis or painful bladder syndrome.

    p. 1042

    A nurse is caring for a patient who is suspected to have a kidney disorder. The laboratory findings indicate decreased serum albumin, decreased total serum protein, and elevated cholesterol. Which medication does the nurse expect will be prescribed to the patient?

    A. Tamsulosin
    B. Doxorubicin
    C. 5-fluorouracil
    D. Cyclophosphamide

    D. Cyclophosphamide

    Rationale
    Decreased levels of serum albumin and serum protein and elevated serum cholesterol indicate that the patient has nephrotic syndrome. Cyclophosphamide is used to treat nephrotic syndrome. Tamsulosin is used to facilitate the passage of stones. Doxorubicin is used in the treatment of invasive bladder cancer. 5-fluorouracil is used in the chemotherapeutic treatment of metastatic cancer.

    p. 1044

    Which is the most serious complication the nurse can expect when providing care to a patient diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?

    A. Cerebral aneurysm
    B. Periurethral abscess
    C. Squamous cell cancer of the bladder
    D. Hypercoagulability with thromboembolism

    A. Cerebral aneurysm

    Rationale
    Cerebral aneurysm is a serious complication of PKD; it can rupture and cause bleeding and even irreversible brain damage. Periurethral abscess is a complication seen most frequently with the long-term use of indwelling catheters. Squamous cell cancer of the bladder occurs in individuals with chronic recurrent renal calculi. Hypercoagulability with thromboembolism is a serious complication of nephrotic syndrome.

    p. 1052

    Which surgical procedure is beneficial to treat a patient who is diagnosed with an obstructive urethral stricture?

    A. Urethroplasty
    B. Laser lithotripsy
    C. Spence procedure
    D. Retrograde urethrography

    A. Urethroplasty

    Rationale
    Urethroplasty is an open surgical procedure that is the most definitive therapy for an obstructive urethral stricture. Laser lithotripsy is used to fragment ureteral and large bladder stones. Spence procedure involves marsupialization (creation of a permanent opening) of the diverticular sac in the vagina. Retrograde urethrography is also used for urethral stricture, but is used to determine the stricture length, location, and caliber.

    p. 1050

    Which dietary restriction does a nurse teach the patient with uric acid stones to avoid further complications? Select all that apply.

    A. Avoid cheese
    B. Avoid herring
    C. Avoid spinach
    D. Avoid sardines
    E. Avoid dried fruits

    B. Avoid herring
    D. Avoid sardines

    Rationale
    Herring and sardines are rich in purines that produce uric acid as the waste product and result in the formation of uric acid-related renal calculi. Cheese is highly rich in calcium and should be avoided by a patient with calcium phosphate stones. Spinach should be avoided to reduce calcium oxalate stone formation. Dried fruits are also avoided as to prevent the formation of calcium phosphate stones.

    p. 1049

    Which medication is prescribed for a patient with alkaline urine and struvite stones in the kidney?

    A. Allopurinol
    B. Potassium citrate
    C. Acetohydroxamic acid
    D. Alpha-penicillamine and tiopronin

    C. Acetohydroxamic acid

    Rationale
    Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, and Proteus are microorganisms that make urine alkaline and contribute to the formation of struvite stones with staghorn configuration. Administration of antimicrobial agents such as acetohydroxamic acid is administered to treat the struvite stone renal calculi. Allopurinol is administered to prevent hyperuricemia and formation of calcium oxalate renal stones. Potassium citrate is administered to maintain alkaline urine that has calcium oxalate crystals entrapped in the kidney. Alpha-penicillamine and tiopronin are given to prevent cystine crystallization.

    p. 1046

    A patient is diagnosed with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. On examination, the nurse finds that the patient is hypertensive and has edema and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. What type of diet should the nurse plan for this patient? Select all that apply.

    A. Low-protein diet
    B. Low-sodium diet
    C. Fluid-restricted diet
    D. Nonvegetarian diet
    E. Increased fruit juices

    A. Low-protein diet
    B. Low-sodium diet
    C. Fluid-restricted diet

    Rationale
    A low-protein diet should be maintained. An elevation in BUN is evidence of an increase in nitrogenous wastes in the patient. A low-sodium diet is necessary to control the patient's edema; this edema is due to decreased glomerular filtration. A fluid-restricted diet will also help control fluid retention, because the patient has edema. A nonvegetarian diet is not advisable, because it is rich in protein; the patient has elevated BUN levels and a low-protein diet should be maintained. Increased fruit juices should be avoided, because the increased fluid intake and additional sodium may exacerbate edema and fluid retention.

    p. 1042

    A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the patient?

    A. "Have you recently had strep throat?"
    B. "How much fluid do you drink in a day?"
    C. "Do you have susceptibility to allergies?"
    D. "Have you had any contact with anyone who has measles?"

    A. "Have you recently had strep throat?"

    Rationale
    Glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory process, usually resulting from antibodies reacting with group A hemolytic streptococcal antigens, the organism responsible for strep throat. Allergies, fluid intake, and measles exposure are not germane to the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis.

    p. 1041

    A patient has a history of calcium phosphate renal calculi. The nurse provides teaching about recommended food choices. The patient says, "So I need to eat foods low in calcium like yogurt, oranges, chicken, cranberry juice, spinach, and eggs?" Which of the patient's food choices, indicate that further instruction is required? Select all that apply.

    A. Eggs
    B. Yogurt
    C. Oranges
    D. Chicken
    E. Spinach
    F. Cranberry juice

    B. Yogurt
    E. Spinach

    Rationale
    Milk and milk products are the richest sources of calcium. Dark-green leafy vegetables are also high in calcium. The choice of yogurt and spinach demonstrates that the patient lacks knowledge about a calcium-restricted diet. Oranges, chicken, cranberry juice, and eggs do not contain high levels of calcium and are therefore not restricted from the patient's diet.

    p. 1049

    When examining a patient with glomerulonephritis, which clinical manifestations is the nurse likely to find? Select all that apply.

    A. Hypertension
    B. Nausea and vomiting
    C. Dysuria, fever, and chills
    D. Generalized body edema
    E. Hematuria and smoky urine

    A. Hypertension
    D. Generalized body edema
    E. Hematuria and smoky urine

    Rationale
    Hypertension can result from increased extracellular fluid volume due to decreased glomerular filtration. Generalized body edema is observed due to fluid retention, which occurs as a result of decreased glomerular filtration; initially, periorbital edema is noted, but later it progresses to involve the total body as ascites or peripheral edema in the legs. Hematuria and smoky urine can be observed due to bleeding in the upper urinary tract. Nausea and vomiting are commonly caused by pain associated with urinary tract infections and calculi. Dysuria, fever, and chills are noted in urinary tract infections and calculi.

    p. 1041

    Which treatment does the nurse expect for a patient who presents with hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass in the abdomen? Select all that apply.

    A. Ileal conduit
    B. Marsupialization
    C. Radical nephrectomy
    D. Cystoscopic lithotripsy
    E. Radiofrequency ablation

    C. Radical nephrectomy
    E. Radiofrequency ablation

    Rationale
    Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass in the abdomen are common clinical manifestations of renal cancer. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of a kidney, the adrenal gland, and part of the ureter. Radiofrequency ablation involves destroying a tumor by using heat from radiofrequency. Ileal conduit is a surgical urinary diversion used to treat painful bladder syndrome. Marsupialization is a creation of a permanent opening of a diverticular sac in the vagina. Cystoscopic lithotripsy uses an ultrasonic lithotrite to pulverize a renal stone.

    p. 1053

    Which underlying cause does the nurse expect in a patient who presents with hematuria, red blood cell casts, and proteinuria? Select all that apply.

    A. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    B. Obstructive uropathies
    C. Focal glomerulonephritis
    D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
    E. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)

    D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
    E. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)

    Rationale
    Hematuria, red blood cell casts, and proteinuria are clinical manifestations of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN). SLE and APSGN are underlying causes of RPGN. Hodgkin's lymphoma is a form of neoplasm that causes nephrotic syndrome. Obstructive uropathies cause polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Focal glomerulonephritis is a primary glomerular disease that results in nephrotic syndrome.

    Test-Taking Tip: Determine the condition of the patient based on normal laboratory findings and identify the correct answer.

    p. 1043

    A patient diagnosed with scleroderma is experiencing hypertension. The nurse should know that this could be related to which renal problem?

    A.Obstructive uropathy
    B. Goodpasture's syndrome
    C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    D. Calcium uropathy urinary calculi

    C. Chronic glomerulonephritis

    Rationale
    Hypertension occurs with chronic glomerulonephritis, which may be found in patients with scleroderma. Obstructive uropathy, Goodpasture's syndrome, and calcium oxalate urinary calculi are not related to scleroderma and do not cause hypertension.

    p. 1043

    Which disorder of the urinary system is caused by Trichomonas in women?

    A. Urethritis
    B. Interstitial cystitis
    C. Urethral diverticula
    D. Chronic pyelonephritis

    A. Urethritis

    Rationale
    Urethritis is an inflammation of the urethra. It is a bacterial or viral infection, which may be caused by Trichomonas and monilial infection in women and chlamydial infection and gonorrhea in men. Interstitial cystitis is a chronic, painful inflammatory disease of the bladder. It is also called painful bladder syndrome. The symptoms of interstitial cystitis are urinary urgency, frequency, and pain in the bladder. Urethral diverticula are localized outpouchings of the urethra. They are usually caused by enlargement of obstructed periurethral glands. Chronic pyelonephritis is associated with small, atrophic, and shrunken kidneys. It is usually caused by recurring infection of the upper urinary tract.

    p. 1039

    Which type of urinary incontinence (UI) is caused by interstitial cystitis?

    A. Urge incontinence
    B. Stress incontinence
    C. Overflow incontinence
    D. Functional incontinence

    A. Urge incontinence

    Rationale
    Interstitial cystitis is a bladder disorder that causes urge incontinence. Stress incontinence is caused by prostate surgery for benign prostate hyperplasia. A herniated disc and diabetic neuropathy cause overflow incontinence. Problems affecting balance and mobility in older adults cause functional incontinence.

    p. 1056

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