A nurse is teaching a client about dietary recommendations to lower high blood pressure

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The nurse teaches a 28-yr-old man newly diagnosed with hypertension about lifestyle modifications to reduce his blood pressure. Which patient statement requires reinforcement of teaching?
A. "I will avoid adding salt to my food during or after cooking."
B. "If I lose weight, I might not need to continue taking medications."
C. "I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco."
D. "Diet changes can be as effective as taking blood pressure medications."

C. I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco."

Nicotine contained in tobacco products (smoking and chew) cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Persons with hypertension should restrict sodium to 1500 mg/day by avoiding foods high in sodium and not adding salt in preparation of food or at meals. Weight loss can decrease blood pressure between 5 to 20 mm Hg. Following dietary recommendations (e.g., the DASH diet) lowers blood pressure, and these decreases compare with those achieved with blood pressure-lowering medication.

The nurse supervises an unlicensed assistant personnel (UAP) who is taking the blood pressure of 58-yr-old obese female patient admitted with heart failure. Which action by the UAP will require the nurse to intervene?
A. Waiting 2 minutes after position changes to take orthostatic pressures
B. Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg per second
C. Taking the blood pressure with the patient's arm at the level of the heart
D. Taking a forearm blood pressure because the largest cuff will not fit the patient's upper arm

B. Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg per second

The cuff should be deflated at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg per second. The arm should be supported at the level of the heart for accurate blood pressure measurements. Using a cuff that is too small causes a falsely high reading and too large causes a falsely low reading. If the maximum size blood pressure cuff does not fit the upper arm, the forearm may be used. Orthostatic blood pressures should be taken within 1 to 2 minutes of repositioning the patient.

A 44-yr-old man is diagnosed with hypertension and receives a prescription for benazepril (Lotensin). After providing instruction, which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?
A. "If I take this medication, I will not need to follow a special diet."
B. "It is normal to have some swelling in my face while taking this medication."
C. "I will need to eat foods such as bananas and potatoes that are high in potassium."
D. "If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor."

D. "If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor."

Benazepril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The medication inhibits breakdown of bradykinin, which may cause a dry, hacking cough. Other adverse effects include hyperkalemia. Swelling in the face could indicate angioedema and should be reported immediately to the prescriber. Patients taking drug therapy for hypertension should also attempt lifestyle modifications to lower blood pressure such as a reduced-sodium diet.

A 67-yr-old woman with hypertension is admitted to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 234/148 mm Hg and was started on nitroprusside (Nitropress). After one hour of treatment, the mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) is 55 mm Hg. Which nursing action is a priority?
A. Start an infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/hr.
B. Maintain the current administration rate of the nitroprusside.
C. Request insertion of an arterial line for accurate blood pressure monitoring.
D. Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications.

D. Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications.

Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator medication. A blood pressure of 234/118 mm Hg would have a calculated MAP of 177 mm Hg. Subtracting 25% (or 44 mm Hg) = 133 mm Hg. The initial treatment goal is to decrease MAP by no more than 25% within minutes to 1 hour. For this patient, the goal MAP would be approximately 133 mm Hg. Minimal MAP required to perfuse organs is around 60 to 65 mm Hg. Lowering the blood pressure too rapidly may decrease cerebral, coronary, or renal perfusion and could precipitate a stroke, myocardial infarction, or renal failure. The priority is to stop the nitroprusside infusion and then use fluids only if necessary to support restoration of MAP.

The nurse admits a 73-yr-old male patient with dementia for treatment of uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse will closely monitor for hypokalemia if the patient receives which medication?
A. Clonidine (Catapres)
B. Bumetanide (Bumex)
C. Amiloride (Midamor)
D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

B. Bumetanide (Bumex)

Bumetanide is a loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of this medication. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone is an aldosterone-receptor blocker. Hyperkalemia is an adverse effect of both amiloride and spironolactone. Clonidine is a central-acting α-adrenergic antagonist and does not cause electrolyte abnormalities.

The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by which mechanism?
A. Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries.
B. Hypertension causes direct pressure on organs, resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar tissue.
C. Hypertension causes thickening of the capillary membranes, leading to hypoxia of organ systems.
D. Hypertension increases blood viscosity, which contributes to intravascular coagulation and tissue necrosis distal to occlusions.

A. Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries.

Hypertension is a major risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis by mechanisms not yet fully known. However, when atherosclerosis develops, it damages the walls of arteries and reduces circulation to target organs and tissues.

When teaching a patient about dietary management of stage 1 hypertension, which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Increase water intake.
B. Restrict sodium intake.
C. Increase protein intake.
D. Use calcium supplements.

B. Restrict sodium intake.

The patient should decrease intake of sodium. This will help to control hypertension, which can be aggravated by excessive salt intake, which in turn leads to fluid retention. Protein intake does not affect hypertension. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower blood pressure.

In caring for a patient admitted with poorly controlled hypertension, which laboratory test result should the nurse understand as indicating the presence of target organ damage?
A. Serum uric acid of 3.8 mg/dL
B. Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L
D. Blood urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dL

B. Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL

The normal serum creatinine level is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. This elevated level indicates target organ damage to the kidneys. The other laboratory results are within normal limits.

When providing dietary instruction to a patient with hypertension, the nurse would advise the patient to restrict intake of which meat?
A. Broiled fish
B. Roasted duck
C. Roasted turkey
D. Baked chicken breast

B. Roasted duck

Roasted duck is high in fat, which should be avoided by the patient with hypertension. Weight loss may slow the progress of atherosclerosis and overall cardiovascular disease risk. The other meats are lower in fat and are therefore acceptable in the diet.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a history of hypertension. The patient's medication history includes hydrochlorothiazide daily for the past 10 years. Which parameter would indicate the optimal intended effect of this drug therapy?
A. Weight loss of 2 lb
B. BP 128/86 mm Hg
C. Absence of ankle edema
D. Output of 600 mL per 8 hours

B. BP 128/86 mm Hg

Hydrochlorothiazide may be used alone as monotherapy to manage hypertension or in combination with other medications if not effective alone. After the first few weeks of therapy, the diuretic effect diminishes, but the antihypertensive effect remains. Because the patient has been taking this medication for 10 years, the most direct measurement of its intended effect would be the blood pressure.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), angina, and hypertension. Before administering the prescribed daily dose of atenolol 100 mg PO, the nurse assesses the patient carefully. Which adverse effect is this patient at risk for given the patient's health history?
A. Hypocapnia
B. Tachycardia
C. Bronchospasm
D. Nausea and vomiting

C. Bronchospasm

Atenolol is a cardioselective β1-adrenergic blocker that reduces blood pressure and could affect the β2-receptors in the lungs with larger doses or with drug accumulation. Although the risk of bronchospasm is less with cardioselective β-blockers than nonselective β-blockers, atenolol should be used cautiously in patients with COPD.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension who is scheduled to receive a dose of metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should withhold the dose and consult the prescribing physician for which vital sign taken just before administration?
A. O2 saturation 93%
B. Pulse 48 beats/min
C. Respirations 24 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure 118/74 mm Hg

B. Pulse 48 beats/min

Because metoprolol is a β1-adrenergic blocking agent, it can cause hypotension and bradycardia as adverse effects. The nurse should withhold the dose and consult with the health care provider for parameters regarding pulse rate limits.

When teaching how lisinopril (Zestril) will help lower the patient's blood pressure, which mechanism of action should the nurse explain?
A. Blocks β-adrenergic effects
B. Relaxes arterial and venous smooth muscle
C. Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
D. Reduces sympathetic outflow from central nervous system

C. Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which reduces angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention. β blockers result in vasodilation and decreased heart rate. Direct vasodilators relax arterial and venous smooth muscle. Central acting α-adrenergic antagonists reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system to produce vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.

Despite a high dosage, a male patient who is taking nifedipine (Procardia XL) for antihypertensive therapy continues to have blood pressures over 140/90 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next?
A. Assess his adherence to therapy.
B. Ask him to make an exercise plan.
C. Instruct him to use the DASH diet.
D. Request a prescription for a thiazide diuretic.

A. Assess his adherence to therapy.

A long-acting calcium-channel blocker such as nifedipine causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation, resulting in decreased systemic vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure and related side effects. The patient data the nurse has about this patient is very limited, so the nurse needs to begin by assessing adherence to therapy.

The UAP is taking orthostatic vital signs. In the supine position, the blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mm Hg, and the heart rate (HR) is 80 beats/min. In the sitting position, the BP is 140/80, and the HR is 90 beats/min. Which action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take next?
A. Repeat BP and HR in this position.
B. Record the BP and HR measurements.
C. Take BP and HR with patient standing.
D. Return the patient to the supine position

C. Take BP and HR with patient standing.

The vital signs taken do not reflect orthostatic changes, so the UAP will continue with the measurements while the patient is standing. There is no need to repeat or delay the readings. The patient does not need to return to the supine positon. When assessing for orthostatic changes, the UAP will take the BP and pulse in the supine position, then place the patient in a sitting position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings, and then reposition to the standing position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings. Results consistent with orthostatic changes would have a decrease of 20 mm Hg or more in systolic BP, a decrease of 10 mm Hg or more in diastolic BP, and/or an increase in HR of greater than or equal to 20 beats/min with position changes.

A patient with a history of chronic hypertension is being evaluated in the emergency department for a blood pressure of 200/140 mm Hg. Which patient assessment question is the priority?
A. Is the patient pregnant?
B. Does the patient need to urinate?
C. Does the patient have a headache or confusion?
D. Is the patient taking antiseizure medications as prescribed?

C. Does the patient have a headache or confusion?

The nurse's priority assessments include neurologic deficits, retinal damage, heart failure, pulmonary edema, and renal failure. The headache or confusion could be seen with hypertensive encephalopathy from increased cerebral capillary permeability leading to cerebral edema. In addition, headache or confusion could represent signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke. Pregnancy can lead to secondary hypertension. Needing to urinate and taking antiseizure medication do not support a hypertensive emergency.

When caring for elderly patients with hypertension, which information should the nurse consider when planning care (select all that apply.)?
A. Systolic blood pressure increases with aging.
B. Blood pressures should be maintained near 120/80 mm Hg.
C. White coat syndrome is prevalent in elderly patients.
D. Volume depletion contributes to orthostatic hypotension.
E. Blood pressure drops 1 hour postprandially in many older patients.
F. Older patients will require higher doses of antihypertensive medications.

A,C,D,E

Systolic blood pressure increases with age and patients older than age 60 years should be maintained below 150/90 mm Hg. Older patients have significantly higher blood pressure readings when taken by health care providers (white coat syndrome). Older patients experience orthostatic hypotension related to dehydration, reduced compensatory mechanisms, and medications. One hour after eating, many older patients experience a drop in blood pressure. Lower doses of medications may be needed to control blood pressures in older adults related to decreased absorption rates and excretion ability.

The nurse is teaching a women's group about prevention of hypertension. What information should be included in the teaching for all the women (select all that apply.)?
A. Lose weight.
B. Limit nuts and seeds.
C. Limit sodium and fat intake.
D. Increase fruits and vegetables.
E. Exercise 30 minutes most days.

C,D,E

Primary prevention of hypertension is to make lifestyle modifications that prevent or delay the increase in BP. Along with exercise for 30 minutes on most days, the DASH eating plan is a healthy way to lower BP by limiting sodium and fat intake, increasing fruits and vegetables, and increasing nutrients that are associated with lowering BP. Nuts and seeds and dried beans are used for protein intake. Weight loss may or may not be necessary for the individual.

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Which foods would the nurse suggest that a patient with hypertension should limit?

The diet is simple:.

Eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy foods..

Cut back on foods that are high in saturated fat, cholesterol, and trans fats..

Eat more whole-grain foods, fish, poultry, and nuts..

Limit sodium, sweets, sugary drinks, and red meats..

Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension quizlet?

There are several factors related to health, life style, and diet that contribute to hypertension. Risk factors include atherosclerosis, older age, genetics (family history and race), obesity, salt intake, and alcohol intake.

What activities can the nurse include to help control hypertension?

Nursing Management.

Monitor blood pressure frequently. ... .

Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed..

Have two large-bore IVs..

Provide oxygen f the saturations are low (less than 94%).

Limit fluid intake if the patient is in heart failure..

Assess ECG to ensure the patient is not having a heart attack..

Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension select all that apply?

Risk Factors for High Blood Pressure (Hypertension).

Being overweight or obese..

Too much salt (sodium) in your diet..

Too little potassium in your diet..

Not being physically active..

Drinking too much alcohol..

Which of the following food sources should the nurse best recommend to a client with constipation?

Foods that are good sources of soluble fiber include apples, bananas, barley, oats, and beans. Insoluble fiber helps speed up the transit of food in the digestive tract and helps prevent constipation. Good sources of insoluble fiber include whole grains, most vegetables, wheat bran, and legumes.

Which of the following clients is the highest priority to observe during meals?

A client who has Parkinson's disease is at risk for aspiration. Due to this safety risk, this client is the highest priority to observe during meals.
Unhealthy diet contributes to approximately 678,000 deaths each year in the U.S., due to nutrition- and obesity-related diseases, such as heart disease, cancer, and type 2 diabetes. ... Leading Causes of Death (2012)7..

Which of the following foods is the most energy dense per serving?

Fat provides 9 calories per gram, making it the nutrient with the highest energy density.