Which of the following provides the first appellate level for courts of limited jurisdiction?

Level 1—Limited Jurisdiction. Justice of the peace courts and municipal (or city) courts have limited jurisdiction, meaning that their authority is restricted to certain cases. The cases these courts decide may be limited by the subject, the amount of money involved, or the sentence that can be imposed.

Level 2—General Jurisdiction. The general jurisdiction court is the Superior Court of Arizona, a statewide trial court. This court hears the widest variety of cases. Each county has at least one superior court facility, and it is referred to by its county location—for example, the Superior Court in Maricopa County.

Level 3—Appellate Jurisdiction. The Court of Appeals and the Supreme Court are Arizona’s appellate courts. The state appellate courts have jurisdiction to review trials and decisions appealed to them. The two divisions of the Court of Appeals hear most of the appeals that come from the superior court, except for death penalty appeals and some cases involving elected officials and disputes between counties, which go directly to the Supreme Court.

To appeal a decision from the Court of Appeals, the appellant must file a petition for review by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court justices evaluate the petitions for review and decide whether they will hear the case. Unlike the Court of Appeals, the Supreme Court is not required to hear every appeal.

Statewide trial courts consist of the Supreme Courts, County Courts, Family Courts and Surrogate's Courts.

The Supreme Court is a trial court of statewide jurisdiction, which hears cases that are outside the other trial courts of limited jurisdiction.The Supreme Court hears both civil and criminal trials, though most criminal cases are heard in County Courts. The Supreme Court has jurisdiction over felony charges in New York City.

The County Courts are trial courts with jurisdiction over civil law and equity. Excepting New York City, these courts have original jurisdiction over criminal charges. Appeals from these courts are heard in the Appellate Division.

Each county and New York City have a division of Family Court, which has jurisdiction over matters involving children and families - including child support, custody, foster care, adoption, paternity, and juvenile delinquency.

Surrogate's Curt hears cases involving decedents' estates, probate of wills, adoptions, and guardianships.

For a description of the various courts, see the New York State Unified Court System website.

At which stage of the hearing are defendants brought before a judge to possibly be afforded the opportunity for bail?
a. preliminary hearing
b. pretrial release
c. grand jury hearing
d. first appearance

A formal written accusation submitted to the court by a grand jury, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, usually a felony, is known as an ________. a. indictment b. assessment c. arraignment d. enforcement

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the U.S. Supreme Court? a. The U.S. Supreme Court justices serve for eight years. b. The U.S. Supreme Court is the highest federal court. c. The U.S. Supreme Court consists of nine justices. d. The U.S. Supreme Court wields immense power.

a. The U.S. Supreme Court justices serve for eight years.

Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have ________. a. appellate jurisdiction b. original jurisdiction c. limited jurisdiction d. special jurisdiction

a. appellate jurisdiction

High-level appellate courts are also referred to as ________. a. courts of last resort b. intermediate appellate courts c. trial courts of general jurisdiction d. trial courts of limited jurisdiction

A formal written accusation submitted to a court by a prosecutor, alleging that a specified person has committed a specified offense, is known as a(n) ________. a. arraignment b. plea c. bail d. information

How many regional courts of appeal are there in the United States? a. 12 b. 6 c. 10 d. 60

In which U.S. Supreme Court case was the Court’s authority as the final interpreter of the U.S. Constitution established? a. Sell v. U.S b. U.S. v. Hazzard c. U.S v. Montalvo-Murillo d. Marbury v. Madison

One purpose of ________ is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. a. bail b. adjudication c. plea d. arraignment

Which of the following is NOT an alternative to bail? a. nolo contendere b. conditional release c. release on recognizance d. third-party custody

Which of the following refers to the lawful authority of a court to hear or to act on a case from its beginning and to pass judgment on the law and the facts? a. appellate jurisdiction b. overlapping jurisdiction c. original jurisdiction d. limited jurisdiction

All of the following EXCEPT which are names used in place of “trial court of general jurisdiction”? a. appellate court b. high court c. circuit court d. superior court

Which of the following provides the first appellate level for courts of limited jurisdiction? a. courts of last resort b. trial courts of general jurisdiction c. intermediate appellate courts d. district courts

b. trial courts of general jurisdiction

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the dependant’s first appearance before a judge? a. The defendant is afforded the opportunity for bail. b. The defendant is advised of his or her rights. c. The defendant is given formal notice of the charges. d. The defendant is given the opportunity to cross-examine witnesses.

d. The defendant is given the opportunity to cross-examine witnesses.

Which of the following is an alternative to the cash bond system? a. pretrial release b. conditional release c. plea bargaining d. preliminary hearing

A document guaranteeing the appearance of a defendant in court as required and recording the pledge of money or property to be paid to the court if he or she does not appear is known as a(n) ________. a. bail bond b. unsecured bond c. property bond d. signature bond

Bob consigned all of his stock holdings to the court as collateral against pretrial flight. What type of bail did he post? a. unsecured bond b. signature bond c. deposit bail d. property bond

Which type of bail is similar to a credit contract? a. deposit bail b. unsecured bonds c. third-party custody d. conditional release

Which of the following is NOT decided during the preliminary hearing? a. whether the crime was committed b. whether the crime occurred within the territorial jurisdiction of the court c. whether the dependant would be allowed to enter a plea d. whether there are reasonable grounds to believe that the defendant is guilty

c. whether the dependant would be allowed to enter a plea

What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea? a. no-contest plea b. not guilty plea c. bargained plea d. negotiated plea

What is the primary purpose of the preliminary hearing? a. to give the defendant the opportunity to challenge the legal basis for detention b. to once again inform the defendant of the specific charges against him or her c. to allow the defendant to enter a plea d. to help ensure reappearance of the accused

a. to give the defendant the opportunity to challenge the legal basis for detention

All of the following are considered professionals in the courtroom work group, EXCEPT the________. a. victim b. judge c. defense attorney d. prosecuting attorney

What is the single most important criterion for determining the level of proof necessary for conviction in criminal trials? a. standards for criminal justice b. reasonable doubt standard c. standards of professional responsibility d. ethical and procedural standards

b. reasonable doubt standard

Which of the following statements is false regarding the role of the judge in the courtroom work group? a. The judge is responsible for presenting the state’s case against the defendant. b. If a guilty verdict has been returned, the judge is responsible for imposing a sentence. c. The judge holds ultimate authority in ruling on matters of law. d. The primary duty of a judge is to ensure justice.

a. The judge is responsible for presenting the state’s case against the defendant.

Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt? a. the bailiff b. the judge c. the prosecutor d. the defense counsel

The role of a defense attorney does NOT include ________. a. testing the strength of the prosecution’s case b. appealing a conviction c. representing the accused d. representing the state

d. representing the state

Criminal defendants who are unable to afford their own lawyer can use all of the following systems, EXCEPT ________. a. assigned counsel b. public defenders c. bailiffs d. contractual arrangements

What is the primary purpose of any criminal trial? a. cooperation and communication with the police b. recognition of informal rules of civility c. determination of the defendant’s guilt or innocence d. instruction to meet the needs of trial judges

c. determination of the defendant’s guilt or innocence

Who keeps order in the courtroom and announces the judge’s entry to the courtroom? a. the court recorder b. the bailiff c. the clerk of court d. the court administrator

Which of the following terms refers to the issue of whether the defendant is actually responsible for the crime of which he or she stands accused? a. implied guilt b. factual guilt c. demonstrated guilt d. legal guilt

The most widely used system of indigent defense involves ________. a. public defender programs b. court-appointed defense attorneys judicial degree programs. c. victims’ assistance programs d. contract attorney programs

a. public defender programs

Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense? a. the court recorder b. the bailiff c. the court administrator d. the clerk of court

Criminal trials under the American system of justice are built around ________. a. the court system b. an adversarial system c. the grand jury system d. a public defender system

All of the following are outsiders to the courtroom work group, EXCEPT ________. a. defendants b. victims c. lay witnesses d. bailiff

Which of the following represents the order of the steps in a criminal trial? a. jury selection, trial initiation, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict b. trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict c. opening statements, jury selection, presentation of evidence, trial initiation, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict d. the judge’s charge to the jury, jury selection, opening statements, trial initiation, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, jury deliberations, the verdict

b. trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberations, the verdict

Which of the following is NOT a type of juror challenge? a. peremptory challenges b. challenges to the array c. challenges for cause d. challenges for knowledge

d. challenges for knowledge

The ________ is a two-sided structure under which the American criminal trial court operates that pits the prosecution against the defense. a. election system b. appointment system c. grand jury system d. adversarial system

Weapons, tire tracks, and fingerprints are examples of ________. a. circumstantial evidence b. real evidence c. exculpatory evidence d. testimonial evidence

Which of the following officially notifies witnesses that they are to appear in court to testify? a. appeal b. sentence c. subpoena d. bill

Court-appointed defense attorneys, whose fees are paid at a set rate by local or state government, are also called ________. a. assigned counsel b. opposing counsel c. public counsel d. private counsel

The ________ system relies on full-time salaried staff. a. private counsel b. contract attorney c. assigned counsel d. public defender

Which of the following is NOT another name for a prosecuting attorney? a. assigned counsel b. solicitor c. state’s attorney d. district attorney

During a trial, the ________ stage happens before the ________ stage, but after the ________ stage. a. closing arguments; opening statement; jury selection b. jury selection; opening statement; presentation of evidence c. opening statement; closing statement; jury selection d. presentation of evidence; opening statement; closing statement

c. opening statement; closing statement; jury selection

Which of the following is an example of jury tampering? a. contacting a sequestered jury b. wrangling over jury selection c. addressing the jury in the courtroom d. avoiding jury duty

a. contacting a sequestered jury

The most important form of prosecutorial discretion lies in the power to ________. a. test the credibility and the memory of the witness b. handle certain matters relating to individuals declared mentally incompetent c. serve as a judge of probate to oversee wills and the administration of estates d. charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense

d. charge, or not to charge, a person with an offense

Which of the following terms describes an attorney who works for a law firm? a. court-appointed counsel b. public defender c. prosecuting attorney d. private attorney

A defendant would be entitled to counsel if she were too poor to afford an attorney in each of the following situations, EXCEPT if ________. a. she were charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of six months in jail b. she were charged with a felony c. she were charged with a capital crime d. she were charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of a $100 fine

d. she were charged with a misdemeanor with a maximum penalty of a $100 fine

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of contemporary sentencing? a. incapacitation b. mitigation c. rehabilitation d. restoration

Which of the following is a just deserts perspective that emphasizes taking revenge on a criminal perpetrator or group of offenders? a. deterrence b. retribution c. restoration d. rehabilitation

Which of the following refers to the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood that a particular offender will commit more crime? a. deterrence b. incapacitation c. retribution d. rehabilitation

Which of the following sentencing goals is closely associated with the phrase “an eye for an eye”? a. incapacitation b. rehabilitation c. deterrence d. retribution

________ is the earliest known rationale for punishment. a. Retribution b. Incapacitation c. Rehabilitation d. Restoration

________ deterrence seeks to reduce the likelihood of recidivism by convicted offenders. a. Focused b. Specific c. General d. Primary

Which of the following refers to the goal of criminal sentencing that attempts to make the victim “whole again”? a. restoration b. incapacitation c. retribution d. deterrence

A sentence of 8 to 25 years under the supervision of the state department of correction is an example of ________ sentencing. a. consecutive b. concurrent c. indeterminate d. structured

Proportionality holds that ________. a. the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime b. caseloads should be equally divided among the available judges c. similar crimes should be punished with the same degree of severity d. caseloads should be equally divided among the available prosecutors

a. the severity of sanctions should bear a direct relationship to the seriousness of the crime

A model of criminal punishment in which an offender is given a fixed term that may be reduced by good time or gain time is called ________ sentencing. a. indeterminate b. determinate c. quasi-independent d. mandatory

Cooperating with the authorities, good character, and no prior record are examples of ________ circumstances. a. aggravating b. unforeseen c. compensatory d. mitigating

Who is the final arbiter of the actual sentence served in a state that relies on an indeterminate sentencing scheme? a. the prosecutor b. the parole board c. the governor d. the judge

________ states eliminated the use of parole and created explicit standards to specify the amount of punishment appropriate for a given offense. a. Mandatory b. Indeterminate c. Presumptive d. Determinate

“Truth in sentencing” guarantees that offenders will serve at least ________ of their sentence. a. 65% b. 50% c. 85% d. 25%

When a judge, prior to sentencing, reviews information on the background of a convicted defendant, it is called ________. a. a criminal history report b. postconviction evidence c. a presentence investigation d. judicial choice

c. a presentence investigation

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of restorative justice? a. Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent. b. Victims are central to the process of resolving a crime. c. The emphasis is on dialogue and negotiation. d. There is direct involvement by both the offender and the victim.

a. Pain is imposed to punish, deter, and prevent.

Which the following is the primary sentencing tool of the just deserts model? a. probation b. fine c. restitution d. imprisonment

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that ________ must decide the facts that lead to a death sentence. a. juries, not judges b. high courts c. appellate courts d. judges, not juries

Under the indeterminate sentencing model, what is the primary determinant of the amount of time served? a. leniency of the judge b. inmate’s behavior while incarcerated c. pressure from politicians d. leniency of the parole board

b. inmate’s behavior while incarcerated

Which of the following is a form of structured sentencing? a. indeterminate sentencing b. contemporary sentencing c. quasi-independent sentencing d. determinate sentencing

d. determinate sentencing

Three-strikes laws require ________ sentencing. a. alternative b. indeterminate c. mandatory d. quasi-independent

Approximately what percentage of federal cases are the result of guilty pleas? a. 10% b. 50% c. 90% d. 20%

Recommended sentencing policies that are not required by law are known as ________. a. voluntary sentencing guidelines b. presumptive sentencing c. determinate sentencing d. indeterminate sentencing

a. voluntary sentencing guidelines

Which of the following is NOT a form of structured sentencing? a. presumptive b. determinate c. quasi-independent d. voluntary/advisory

What goal of sentencing is sometimes referred to as the “lock ’em up approach”? a. incapacitation b. rehabilitation c. retribution d. deterrence

Which of the following provides the first apple at level for courts of limited jurisdiction?

Which type of jurisdiction do federal trial courts have a limited original appellate general?

Which level has the final appellate jurisdiction?

Which of the following cases would be heard by a court with appellate jurisdiction?