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Q1: Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process. A iv
– v – iii – ii – i B v – i – iii – ii – iv C iv – v – i – iii – ii D v – ii – iii – i – iv Q2: What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process? 3 Q3: A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called: 4 Q4: What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing? A I and II are true. III and N are false B III is true, I, II, and IV are false C I, II, and IV are true; III is false D I, II, and III are true, IV is false. 5 Q5: Which of the following is false? A In a system, two different failures may have different severities. B A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault. C A fault need not affect the reliability of a system. D Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour. 6 Q6: Test data planning essentially includes A Network B Operational Model C Boundary value analysis D Test Procedure Planning 7 Q7: Which of the following is true? A Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box. B If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software. C The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was D The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find. 8 Q8: Which of the following is not a phase of the Fundamental Test Process? A Test Planning and Control B Test implementation and Execution C Requirement Analysis D Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting 9 Q9: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:- A Test Analysis and Design B Test Planning and control C Test Implementation and execution D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting 10 Q10: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not B 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not D All of them are valid reasons for failure. 11 Q11: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase A Test Analysis and Design B Test Planning and control C Test Closure Activities D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting 12 Q12: Test Case grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as A Test Harness B Test Suite C Test Cycle D Test Driver Q13: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing? A Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products. B For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations. C Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software. D The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products. 14 Q14: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion? A to know when a specific test has finished its execution B to ensure that the test case specification is complete C to set the criteria used in generating test inputs D to determine when to stop testing 15 Q15: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? A Ensuring proper environment setup B Writing a test summary report C Assessing the need for additional tests D Finalising and archiving testware. 16 Q16: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? A Usability defects found by customers B Defects in infrequently used functionality C Defects that were detected early D Minor defects that were found by users 17 Q17: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? A Implementation and execution. B Planning and control. C Analysis and design. D Test closure. 18 Q18: Which of the problems below BEST characterise a result of software failure? A Damaged reputation B Lack of methodology C Inadequate training D Regulatory compliance 19 Q19: What is the purpose of exit criteria? A To define when a test level is complete. B To determine when a test has completed. C To identify when a software system should be retired. D To determine whether a test has passed. 20 Q20: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. A i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. B ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false. C iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false. 21 Q21: What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? A Exploratory testing B Independent testing C Integration testing D Interoperability testing 22 Q22: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A It does not require familiarity with the code. B It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D Testers are better at finding defects than developers 23 Q23: Which is the best definition of complete testing: A You have discovered every bug in the program. B You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program. C You have completed every test in the test plan. D You have reached the scheduled ship date. 24 Q24: Which is not the testing objectives A Finding defects B Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information C Preventing defects. D Debugging defects 25 Q25: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester? A Reviewing tests developed by others B Writing a test strategy for the project C Deciding what should be automated D Writing test summary reports 26 Q26: Which is not a testing principle A Early testing B Defect clustering C Pesticide paradox D Exhaustive testing 27 Q27: What consists of a set of input values, execution preconditions and expected results? A Test script B Test procedure specification 28 Q28: The ___________ testing will be performed by the people at clients own locations A Alpha testing B Field testing C Performance testing D System testing 29 Q29: Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the fundamental test process? A Initiating and planning B Documenting root-causes C Capturing lessons learned D Planning and control 30 Q30: The purpose of exit criteria is A Define when to stop testing B End of test level C When a set of tests has achieved a specific precondition D All of the above 31 Q31: Which is not the fundamental test process A Planning and control B Test closure activities C Analysis and design D None 32 Q32: The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. A Tools and techniques B Procedures and standards C Processes and walkthroughs D Reviews and update 33 Q33: Which of the following is a MAJOR test planning task? A Determining the exit criteria B Measuring and analysing results C Implementing corrective actions D Monitoring and documenting progress 34 Q34: Testing wherein we subject the target of the test, to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviour and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads. A Load Testing B Integration Testing C System Testing D Usability Testing 35 Q35: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase A Test Analysis and Design B Test Implementation and execution C Test Closure Activities D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting 36 Q36: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase A Creating test suites from the test cases B Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C Comparing actual results D Designing the Tests 37 Q37: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase A Test Implementation and execution B Test Analysis and Design C Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting D Test Closure Activities 38 Q38: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:- A Test Analysis and Design B Test Implementation and execution C Test Closure Activities D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting 39 Q39: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? A i, ii, iii are true and iv is false B i, iv are true and ii is false C i, ii are true and iii, iv are false D ii, iii, iv are true and i is false 40 Q40: Exhaustive Testing is A Is impractical but possible B Is practically possible C Is impractical and impossible D Is always possible 41 Q41: What is the process of analysing and removing causes of failures in software? C Debugging D Verification 42 Q42: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase A Requirements Phase B Analysis and Design Phase C Development Phase D Testing Phase 43 Q43: When to stop Testing? A Stop when scheduled time for testing expires B Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected. C Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors. D None above 44 Q44: Which of these are objectives for software testing? A Determine the productivity of programmers B Eliminate the need for future program maintenance C Eliminate every error prior to release D Uncover software errors 45 Q45: Failure is _________ A Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program B Bug found before product Release C Bug found after product Release D Bug found during Design phase 46 Q46: Features to be tested, approach, the testing tasks and test deliverables should be specified in which document? A Test case specification B Test procedure specification C Test plan D Test design specification 47 Q47: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is: A Lack of technical documentation B Lack of test tools in the market for developers C Lack of training D Lack of Objectivity 48 Q48: Pick the best definition of quality A Quality is job one B Zero defects C Conformance to requirements D Work as designed 49 Q49: Independent Verification & Validation is A Done by the Developer B Done by the Test Engineers C Done By Management D Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence 50 Q50: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively? C Planning D Check Exit criteria completion 51 Q51: During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process do you review the test basis? A Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. B Test implementation and execution C Test analysis and design D Test planning and control 52 Q52: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key A Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing. B Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software. C It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system. D The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. 53 Q53: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team? A Determine whether enough component testing was executed. B Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and C Prove that all faults are identified. D Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures. 54 Q54: Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and A Setting or defining test objectives. B Reviewing the test basis. C Creating test suites from test procedures. D Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement. 55 Q55: Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. A The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialogue box. B One source code file included in the build was the wrong version. C The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables. D The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm. 56 Q56: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements. B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work. C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found. A B and C are true; A and D are false. B A and D are true; B and C are false. C A and C are true, B and D are false. D C and D are true, A and B are false. 57 Q57: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between A Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging B Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects.
Debugging finds, C Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures. D Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the 58 Q58: When do you stop testing? A When the specified number of faults are found. B When the test completion criteria are met. C When all high and medium priority tests are complete. D When all statements have been executed. When should the test control activity take place?Test Monitoring and Test Control can only be effective when tests are being run in real user conditions. Running them on emulators or simulators cannot provide 100% accurate results, and therefore QA managers won't be able to evaluate the testing process with precision.
What is the correct order of the test process activities?Fundamental Test Process. Test Planning and Control.. Test Analysis and Design.. Test Implementation and Execution.. Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting.. Test Closure.. What are the fundamental test process?Test Planning and Control. Test Analysis and Design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and Reporting.
In which activity of the fundamental test process is the test environment setup?Test Planning : Test planning involves producing a document that describes an overall approach and test objectives. It involves reviewing the test basis, identifying the test conditions based on analysis of test items, writing test cases and Designing the test environment.
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