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1. The three bones of the ankle form a deep socket into which the talus fits. The socket is called the? 2 2. The distal tibial joint surface forming the roof of the distal ankle joint is called the? 3 3. The medial malleolus is approximately 1/2 inch posterior to the lateral malleolus. 4 4. The ankle joint is classifies as a synovial joint with _________ type of movement. 5 5. The ___ is the weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. 6 6. What is the name of the small prominence located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur that is an identifying landmark of to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee? 7 7. What is the name of the large prominence located on the midanterior surface of the proximal tibia that serves as an attachment for the patellar tendon? 8 8. A small, triangular depression located on the tibia that helps form the distal tibiofibular joint is called the? 9 9. The articular facets of the proximal tibia are also referred to as the? 10 10. The articular facets slope is ____ posteriorly 11 11. The most proximal aspect of the fibula is the 12 12. The extreme distal end of the fibula forms the 13 13. Largest sesamoid bone in the body? 14 14. What are two other names for the patellar surface of the femur? Intercondylar sulcus and trochlear groove. 15 15. What is the name of the depression located on the posterior aspect of the distal femur? 16 16. Why must the central ray be angled 5 degrees to 7 degrees cephalad for a lateral knee projection. Because the medial condyle extends lower than the lateral condyle of the femur. 17 17. The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called 18 18. What are the palpable bony landmarks found on the distal femur? Medial epicondyle and lateral epicondyle 19 19. The general region of the posterior knee is called? 20 20.True or false. Flexion of 20 degrees of the knee forces the patella firmly against the patellar surface of the femur 21 21. True or False: The patella acts like a pivot to increase the leverage of a large muscle found in the anterior thigh. 22 22. True or False: The posterior surface of the patella is normally rough 23 23. For which large muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase the leverage Quadriceps femoris muscle 24 24. Between the patella and distal femur is what joint 25 25. Between the two condyles of the femur and tibia is what joint 26 26. Four major ligaments of the knee Fibular collateral, Tibial collateral, Anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate. 27 27. The crescent-shaped fibrocartilage disks that act as shock absorbers in the knee joint are called medial and lateral menisci 28 28. Two bursa that are found in the knee joint Suprapatellar and infrapatellar bursa 29 29. Match the following to the correct bone: tibial plafond 30 30. Match the following to the correct bone: medial malleolus 31 31. Match the following to the correct bone: lateral epicondyle 32 32. Match the following to the correct bone: Patellar surface 33 33. Match the following to the correct bone: articular facets 34 34. Match the following to the correct bone: fibular notch 35 35. Match the following to the correct bone: styloid process 36 36. Match the following to the correct bone: base 37 37. Match the following to the correct bone: Intercondyloid eminence 38 38. Match the following to the correct bone: Neck 39 39. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Ankle Joint 40 40. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Patellofemoral 41 41. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Proximal tibiofibular 42 42. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Knee joint 43 43. Match the following articulations to the correct joint classification or movement type: Distal tibiofibular Amphiarthrodial (syndesmosis type) 44 44. True or false: The recommendation SID for lower limb radiography is 40 ich 45 45. True or false: Multiple images can be placed on the same IR when using analog imaging systems. 46 46. T or F: with careful and close collimation, gonadal shielding does not have to be used during lower limb radiography. 47 47. T or F: A kV range between 50 and 70 should be used for analog lower limb radiography. 48 48. T or F: A kV range for digital imaging is typically lower as compared with film-screen ranges. 49 49. Osgood-schlatter disease An inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia 50 50. Also known as osteitis deformans 51 51. Malignant tumor of the cartilage 52 52. Inherited type of arthritis that commonly affects males 53 53. Benign, neoplastic bone lesion caused by overproduction of bone at a joint 54 54. Benign bone lesion usually developing in teens or young adults 55 55. Most prevalent primary bone malignancy in pediatric patients 56 56. Benign, neoplastic bone lesion located between the base of the first and second metatarsal 57 57. condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus 58 58. Former name for runners knee 59 59. Another term for osteomalacia 60 60. Asymmetric erosion of joint spaces with a calcaneal erosion 61 61. Uric acid deposits in joint spaces 62 62. Well-circumscribed lucency 63 63. Small, round/oval density with lucent center 64 64. Narrowed, irregular joint surfaces with sclerotic articular surfaces 65 65. Fragmentation or detachment of the tibial tuberosity 66 66. Ill-defined area of bone destruction with surronding "onion peel" 67 67. Decreased bone density and bowing deformities of weight-bearing limbs 68 68. Which calcaneal structure should appear medially on a well-positioned plantodorsal axial projection? 69 69. Where is the central ray placed for a mediolateral projection of the calcaneus? 1 inch inferior to medial malleolus 70 70. Which joint surface of the ankle is not typically visualized with a correctly positioned AP projection of the ankle lateral surface of the joint 71 71. Why should AP, 45 oblique, and lateral ankle radiographs include the proximal metatarsals To demonstrate a possible fracture of the fifth metatarsal tuberosity (a common fracture site) 72 72. How much if any should the foot and ankle be rotated for an AP mortise projection of the ankle? 73 73. Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates a possible fracture of the lateral malleolus AP oblique with 45 medial rotation 74 74. With a true lateral projection of the ankle, the lateral malleolus is projected over the posterior aspect of the distal tibia 75 75. Which projections of the ankle require forced inversion and eversion movements 76 76. What is the basic positioning routine for a study of the tibia and fibula 77 77. Why is it important to include the knee joint for an initial study of tibia trauma, even if the patient's symptoms involve the middle and distal aspect A fracture may also be present at the proximal fibula in addition to distal 78 78. To include both joints for a lateral projection of the tibia and fibula for an adult, the technologist may place the cassette _____ in relation to the part. 79 79. What is the recommended central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks ( greater than 24 cm) 80 80. Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the knee? 1/2 inch distal to apex of patella 81 81. Which basic projection of a knee best demonstrates the proximal fibula free of superimposition AP oblique, 45 degrees medial rotation 82 82. For the AP oblique projection of the knee, the ____ rotation best visualizes the lateral condyle of the tibia and the head and neck of the fibula 83 83. What is the recommended central ray placement for a lateral knee position on a tall, slender male patient with a narrow pelvis (without support of the lower leg) 84 84. How much flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the knee 85 85. Which positioning error is present if the posterior portions of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a radiograph of a lateral knee on a average patient 86 86. Which positioning error is present if the posterior portion of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a lateral knee radiograph Over rotation (towards IR) or under rotation of knee (away from IR) 87 87. Which anatomic structures of the femur can be used to determine which rotation error (over rotated or under rotated) is present on a slightly rotated lateral knee radiograph? Adductor tubercle on posterior lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle 88 88. Which special projection of the knee best evaluates the knee joint for cartilage degeneration or deformities? AP or PA weight bearing knee 89 89. What is the best modality to examine ligament injuries to the knee 90 90. Which special projections of the knee best demonstrates the intercondylar fossa? 91 91. How much flexion of the lower leg is required for the PA axial projection (camp-Coventry method) when the central ray is angled 40 degrees caudad 92 92. Why is the PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa recommended instead of an AP axial projection? Distortion caused by central ray angle and increased OID for AP axial projection. 93 93. What type of CR angulation is required for the PA axial weight-bearing projection (Rosenberg method) 94 94. How much flexion of the knees is required for the PA axial weight-bearing projection (Rosenberg method) 95 95. How much knee flexion is required for the PA axial projection (Holmblad method) 96 96. What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial (Holmblad method) None. CR is perpendicular to IR 97 97. T or F: To place the interepicondylar line parallel to the IR for a PA projection of the patella, the lower limb must be rotated approximately 5 degrees internally. 98 98. How much part flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the patella 99 99. How much central ray angle from the long axis of the femora is required for a tangential (merchant method) bilateral projection 30 degrees from horizontal 100 100. How much part flexion is required for the (Hughston method) 101 101. How much part flexion is required for the (Settegast method) 102 102. What type of CR angle is required for the superoinferior sitting tangential method for the patella? None. CR is perpendicular to IR 103 103. Knee projection that can be performed using a wheelchair or lowered radiographic table 104 104. Knee projection with the patient prone; requires 90 knee flexion 105 105. Knee projection with patient prone with 40 to 50 degree knee flexion and with equal 40 to 50 degree caudad CR angle 106 106. Knee projection when the IR is placed on a footstool to minimize OID 107 107. Knee projection with the patient prone with 55 degree knee flexion and 15 degree to 20 degree CR angle from long axis of lower leg. 108 108. Knee projection with patient supine with cassette resting on midthighs Inferosuperior for patellofemoral joint 109 109. Knee projection with patient supine with 40 degree knee flexion and with 30 degree caudad CR angle from horizontal 110 110. Which of the following special projections of the knee must be performed erect. Rosenberg method Settegast method Camp-Coventry method Hughston Method 111 111. How much knee flexion is required for the horizontal beam lateral patella projection 112 112. A lateral knee radiograph that is overrotated toward the image receptor can be recognized by what? The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral. 113 113.What CR angle should be used for a lateral projection of the knee on a short, wide-pelvis patient 114 114. Which special position of the knee requires that the patient be placed supine with 40° flexion of knee with CR angled 30 degrees from long axis of femur? bilateral merchant method 115 115. The posterior visibility of the adductor tubercle on a lateral knee projection indicates: underrotation of knee toward the IR. 116 116. Situation: A radiograph of a lateral projection of the patella reveals that the femoropatellar joint space is not open. The patella is within the intercondylar sulcus. The most likely cause of this is: excessive flexion of knee 117 117. Situation: A radiograph of an AP knee reveals rotation with almost total superimposition of the fibular head and the proximal tibia. What must the technologist do to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure? rotate knee slightly medial 118 118. Situation: A radiograph of a PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa does not demonstrate the fossa well. It is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: patient prone, knee flexed 40 to 45, CR angled to be perpendicular to the femur, 40-inch SID, and no rotation of the lower limb. Based on the factors used, what changes need to be made to produce a more diagnostic image? CR must be perpendicular to lower leg 119 119. Situation: A radiograph of a AP mortise projection of the ankle reveals that the lateral malleolus is slightly superimposed over the talus and the lateral joint space is not open. What is most likely the cause for this radiographic outcome?
insufficient medial rotation of foot and ankle 120 120. Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of osteoarthritis of both knees. The referring physician wants a projection to evaluate the damage to the articular facets. Which of the following projections will provide the best image of this region of the knee? PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method) 121 121. Situation: A geriatric patient comes to the radiology department for a study of the knee. The patient is unsteady and unsure of himself. Which intercondylar fossa projection would provide the best results without risk of injury to the patient? 122 122. Situation: A patient comes to radiology with a history of chondromalacia of the patella. Her physician orders a projection of the patellofemoral joint space. Due to advanced emphysema, the patient cannot lie recumbent for this projection. Which of the following projections would be best for this patient? Superoinferior sitting tangential method 123 123. For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be: perpendicular to image receptor 124 124. Which of the following projections of the patella requires the patient to be placed in a prone position, a 45° flexion of the knee, and a 15° to 20° angle of the CR? 125 125. Which of the following knee projection requires the use of a special IR holding device? bilateral merchant method How many degrees of knee flexion is preferred in a lateral projection of the knee?Knee flexion of 20 to 30 degrees is otherwise preferred – this position relaxes the muscles and shows maximum volume of the joint cavity. Central ray Directed 5 to 7 degrees cephalad to the knee joint 1 inch (2.5 cm) distal to the medial epicondyle.
What is the degree of flexion of the knee for a tangential Settegast view of the patella?Patella Tangential Projection Hughston Method
Position of part Place the IR under the patient's knee. Slowly flex the affected knee so that the tibia and fibula form a 50 to 60 degrees angle from the table.
Why do you think the radiographer instructs the patient to flex the knee of 20 30 degrees in the lateral knee projection?Knee flexion of 20 to 30 degrees is usually preferred – this position relaxes muscles and shows maximum volume of the joint cavity. Central ray 5 to 7 degrees cephalad at knee joint 1 inch (2.5 cm) distal to medial epicondyle.
What Cr angle should be used for a lateral projection of the knee?Chapter 7. |
How much knee flexion is required for the recumbent Mediolateral projection of the knee?
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